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Americans have the second highest median disposable income in the world (after Luxemborg), adjusted for PPP: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disposable_household_and_per_c...

I know your claims are generally accepted fact. Where is the disconnect?



Distribution thereof?

As well as what exactly constitutes "disposable" income; it might not actually be disposable, depending on how that's defined or measured.


That data is the median. The distribution may be uneven, but even the median American has more PPP adjusted income than all but Luxembourg citizens.


OK, but the second point also stands. Income is not the same as disposable income. The OECD data claims to measure the latter, but you'd have to look into the data definitions to see what that means.


Landlords. Medical debt.

Prices have inflated for decades. Minimum wage has stagnated.


Friendly reminder that "inflation" more or less definitionally implies that wages increase proportionally to consumer goods prices. If prices are going up and wages aren't, it's just people getting proportionally poorer.


Costs have inflated, wages have not.



There is a psychological effect in that price rises are perceived as inflation while wage increases are seen as personally earned. So even though real wages are going up, at the individual level, they're not seen as being macro-economically driven.


This is an awful metric for such a discussion, almost seems disingenuous.




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