OK, but the second point also stands. Income is not the same as disposable income. The OECD data claims to measure the latter, but you'd have to look into the data definitions to see what that means.
Friendly reminder that "inflation" more or less definitionally implies that wages increase proportionally to consumer goods prices. If prices are going up and wages aren't, it's just people getting proportionally poorer.
There is a psychological effect in that price rises are perceived as inflation while wage increases are seen as personally earned. So even though real wages are going up, at the individual level, they're not seen as being macro-economically driven.
I know your claims are generally accepted fact. Where is the disconnect?