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So Motorola Mobility brought the matter to German courts, who agreed to ban those products, but "a US court has banned Motorola from enforcing the action until it considers the matter next week.".

How is a ban Motorola has solicited under German law under the jurisdiction of a US court, or am I misunderstanding this?



That was for a US ruling on same patents. It happened before this.

http://www.slashgear.com/microsoft-found-to-infringe-on-four...


Makes no sense to me either but since Motorola is a US company as well, MS might have found an opening.

Banning Windows sales in entire Germany is no child's game, if enforced and then reversed Motorola might go bankrupt. Simple as that.


Google owns Motorola now.


Not yet it doesn't. They're still working on the final elements of the deal (approval in China I believe), though it will almost certainly go through before any such liability might become due.

And for clarity, it's Motorola Mobility they're buying, not all of Motorola.




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